Doctrines of Iglesia Ni Cristo (INC) With Response by Pastor G. Reckart

The Father is the only true God
Iglesia Ni Cristo Official Doctrine

God's Message Magazine, April 2000, p. 12
                                                                                                                                                

Who is the only God introduced by CHRIST? The Savior Himself stated:

"Jesus spoke these words, lifted up His eyes to heaven, and said:"Father, the hour has come. Glorify Your Son, that Your Son also may glorify You... And this is eternal life, that they may know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ whom You have sent'." (Jn. 17:1, 3 NKJV)

Christ introduced the Father in heaven as the only true God. On the other hand, He (Christ) introduced Himself as sent by God--not a co-person of God. By calling the Father as the ONLY true God, Christ Himself prove that He is not God.

Even the APOSTLES recognized only one God, the Father, and never made mention of one God consisting of three persons:

"For there are so-called gods, whether in heaven or on earth (as there are many gods and many lords),

"Yet for us there is one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we for Him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, through whom are all things, and through whom we live." (I Cor. :5-6, NKJV)

The only true God taught by Christ and the apostles is the Father in heaven. They did not include the Son and the Holy Spirit. But, it is not surprising that there are those who teach other gods besides the Father.

(God's Message Magazine, April 2000, p. 12)

The following Copyright 2005 Pastor G. Reckart
May not be posted on any other web site

Conclusion of INC doctrine:  The Father is God, Jesus is the Son separate from the Father and is not God just a man. Jesus was himself then lost until he was saved by some method or means of salvation.

Origin of this doctrine:
 Theodotus 190AD, Logos-Christology; (Dynamic Monarchianism); Jesus was only a man who became Christ at his baptism.  The sect was a splinter from the Modalistic Monarchians who taught Jesus was God manifested in the flesh, another mode or visible form or theophany of God the Father. The Dynamic Monarchian apostasy gave birth to trinitarianism which developed as an attempt to give Deity back to Christ and yet retain the separate existence of the Father and the Son as demanded by the Theodotus heresy.

Historical Information:
Theodotus argued that Jesus could not be God because he and the Apostles spoke of the Father as if he was a separate person from Jesus. The division of the Oneness of Jesus and the Father into two persons, was the foundation of the trinitarian concept that later developed, that indeed the Father and the Son were separate persons and beings, having separate spirits, but having the nature and essence of God, therefore both are one God subsisting in two persons (basic Arianism, that Jesus was a created divine spirit (the logos) and subordinate to the Father); (Arianism developed into Trinitarianism via adoption of wording from Plato philosophy); Finalized at Nicaea in the Nicene Creed as God from God.  The Holy Spirit was not added as a personality to this two Godhead theory until 380AD at the Council of Constantinople. After 380AD the Nicene Creed was edited to include the Holy Spirit as the third person in the triune Godhead.  Had it not been for the Logos-Dynamic Monarchians apostating from the Oneness Modalistic Monarchians, there would have never been a trinity doctrine as we have it today.  The Nicene Council would have never existed.

Solution to the Logos-Christology doctrine of INC:
The only solution is to accept the scriptures that show clearly Jesus was both God and man, he was both Father and Son, he was manifest as Lord and Christ, he was God manifest in the flesh (1Tim 3:16).  When the dual nature of Jesus is denied, the relationship of the Father and the Son must be divided so that two separate personalities exist.  The humanity of God in the seed of David the Messieh is destroyed, and the result is that Jesus would not be God manifest (revealed) in the flesh and would need salvation himself.  Being a man, whatever his sinful or sinless condition might be alleged, he would still need salvation being just as lost as any other person of the human race.
 
Questioning the doctrine:
If Jesus was just a man, how, when, and where was he saved? What was the plan of salvation for God's son Jesus? Where are the scriptures? Where are the scriptures that he was lost and needed salvation and was indeed saved in some manner? Being a man, did Jesus inherit the fall and apostate condition that came upon all flesh from Adam?  Being a man, did Jesus inherit sin from his mother's flesh?  Being a man, was the blood of Jesus pure to be offered as a sacrifice for the sins of the world? How is the blood of Jesus the blood of God in Acts 20:27-28?  When did God have any blood since as INC claims, a Spirit has not flesh, bones, and blood? These and other questions must be answered or the identity of Christ will be false and many souls deceived to believe in a false Jesus which the Apostles did not preach.  
If indeed Jesus is the Logos of John 1:1 and this Logos was made flesh in John 1:14, and as INC claims the Logos was Divine, IS THE FLESH OF JESUS DIVINE or human? If human, how are the Divine and the human separated?  What is Divine about Jesus and what is human? What is Logos and what is human? Is Jesus two different natures in himself then according to INC doctrine, ...Divine Logos and Human? Just how Divine is the Logos?  According to INC, the Logos is the mind of God.  Is then the mind of God Jesus, and is not then Jesus the mind of God the Father? Is not then Jesus God?

                                                                                 

Response by Pastor G. Reckart
Jesus Messieh Fellowship
7911 N. 40th Street
Tampa, Florida  33604
January 2005
(All Scripture will be from the King James Version (KJV) unless noted)

True, there is only one God (Deut 6:4).
True, Jesus is the Son of God (Luke 1:35).
At this point there is a drastic diversion from New Testament doctrine and INC doctrine.  The Scriptures teach Jesus is both God and man, Father and Son, and Lord and Christ. Hence, there is a Spiritual unity between God-Father-Lord and Man-Son-Christ. There is at the same time a difference between the humanity and the Deity of Christ. We admit this and confess it.  We confess that Jesus Christ has come in the flesh (1John 4:3). We refuse to confess the trinitarian view of this incarnation and also that of INC that Jesus Christ coming in flesh means he was a man only.

The argument of INC against Jesus and the Father being one divine person, is basically the same argument the Trinitarians use to claim the Father and Jesus are separate persons in the trinity. INC however strips from Jesus any and all connection to Deity and makes him separate from the Father and a man only.  This being the case, how was Jesus saved?  What was the manner of his salvation?  Where is the scripture that shows Jesus was saved? If Jesus was only a man, he would need salvation for himself. So far I have not read where INC deals with the salvation of Jesus. Being a man only as they claim, he would need to be saved before he could save others. At what point in his life was he a sinner and at what point was he saved.  If he was never a sinner, then INC needs to explain how Jesus was man and born without the judgment of Adam on him, without inherited sin as some claim a men are born with. Scripture on this might give us a better understanding of how INC views Jesus in the totality of his sinful humanity. How was he preserved from sin in his humanity if he was sinless?

Jesus was more than a man. He was not a man like all of us as Felix Manalo claimed. There was inherent heavenly Lordship in Jesus that other men are not born with.  Jesus was Lord and Messieh (God and Christ).

"For unto you is born this day in the city of David a Saviour, which is Messieh (Christ) the Lord" (Luke 2:11). Exactly what Lordship did Jesus posses when he was born?

Messieh (Hebrew), Christ (Greek), what are the meaning of these two titles?
The first actual use of the title Messieh is found in Daniel 9:25--"Unto the Messieh the Prince". A better rendering would be--"Unto the Anointed Prince." Who and what was the Messianic hope in this text.  Exactly how did the Prophet Daniel and other Prophets view this future coming Anointed Prince Son?

The answer is found in a prophecy given to David in Psalms 132:11:

"The LORD hath sworn in truth to David; he will not turn from it; of the fruit of thy body will I set upon thy throne."

"The Lord swore in truth to David, and He will not annul it, saying, Of the fruit of your body will I set a king upon your throne" (Septuagint Version).

Please note the words "a king" is in italics and is not in the actual Greek of the present Septuagint.  There are many who rely on wording in the present Septuagint as if this text is free of interpolations, errors, and bias by translators.  The Septuagint we have today is not the same one Jesus and the Apostles quote from. I offer the words of precaution by W. D. Mounce found in the Preface of his W.D. Mounce's Basics of Biblical Greek:

". . . just because it is written does not make it true. A warning to the wise"

What is Dr. Mounce saying?  He is saying there are many instances in the present Septuagint Greek version of the Old Testament where the text is polluted and not accurate. It is not in agreement with the Massoretic text. He is offering a caution not to build a doctrine based upon the wording in the Septuagint. In fact, the most solid basis of any Biblical argument is to examine the most extant Greek or Massoretic text we have available and determine the exact intent and thus the wording of the original text.  I have chosen to follow the Greek TR which the INC accepts as the most authoritative.  For this reason I have chosen not to accept the perversion of Psalms 132:11 as found in the Septuagint because the interpolated words "a king" totally perverts both the wording and intent of the original text. In the original text God swore to David that HE would set on David's throne.  That is far different then saying God would set a king upon David's throne.  In the first God comes to the earth occupying the actual flesh-seed of David (of the fruit of thy body), and sets on the throne of David.  In the perverted text, God does not come and occupy the flesh-seed of David and set on the throne of David, but instead the text is worded so God swears to David just to set a king on his throne.  In the first there is the Messianic hope of God coming to visit mankind in human form, and in the latter God does not come at all, ONLY A MAN COMES OF DAVID'S SEED!

This text is a dilemma for both trinitarians and INC.  The Trinitarians would need to confess Jesus was the visible image of the invisible indwelling Father, making him both the Father and the Son (fruit of David's loins); and for the INC they would need to confess that Jesus was GOD manifest in the flesh (fruit of David's lions). On both accounts there would be one person and one God, with God being the living Spirit of Jesus.  Trinitarians will not confess Jesus and the Father are the same person and INC will not confess that Jesus is God!  But the Scriptures cannot be broken, God swore to David he would come in the flesh-seed of his lions and set on his throne.  When would God come and complete his oath?  How would Jesus be both the LORD from glory, and also the Lord-King of David's seed and heir to the throne of Israel?  Neither the trinitarians on INC will correctly answer this.  They will both try to destroy even the idea it is true.  That is why the Trinitarians and INC search for alternative renderings until they find a text that destroys the oath God made to David.  The present Septuagint and subsequent renderings by Trinitarians will always pervert the text by now adding "a king" to Psalms 132:11 so as to make Jesus less then he was, either partial deity (a person in the triune Godhead), or having no deity at all (not in the Godhead).

The Old Testament portion of the King James Version of the Bible was translated from the Massoretic Text and NOT FROM THE GREEK SEPTUAGINT. The KJV has the most accurate and most perfect text of all Bibles.  It is always the practice of those who set up false religions to find translations that have the best wording that fits their false teachings.  Joseph Smith could not find one so he concocted his own bible (The Book of Mormon) to substantiate his claims. Outside of himself there are no authortative witnesses to his heresies or that he was the Prophet he claimed. Thus we say he was self-ordained and self-exalted.  The same holds true for Felix Manalo, there was no authortative outside witness to his prophetship or his claims of being a messias, or his claims of restoring the primitive Church. So he turned to the scriptures to find different text that he might manipulate to bear witness to his ministry and his own church.  Manalo and his followers will use any perverted text or translation to prove the scriptural basis of his authority, thus calling the Massoretic text of the devil and false.

Was Jesus God manifest in the flesh, something Manalo and INC deny?

What does the Massoretic text found in Psalms 132:11 contain: 1.) will I set upon thy throne; or 2.) will I set a king on thy throne?

"HaShem swore unto David in truth; He will not turn back from it: 'Of the fruit of thy body will I set upon thy throne" (The Holy Scriptures According To The Massoretic Text, Copyright 1917, The Jewish Publication Society of America).

Of course INC will take the self-serving perversion of the Septuagint or some other perverted text and quote these because it suits their purpose to deny Jesus was God. When they deny the Massorectic text they must claim it is false and of the devil. This is the evidence that proves the INC is a perverted religion, is not of God, because it does not seek the Truth but a perversion to support their own false doctrines.  

The fact is, the text says God swore to David and he will not turn from it, he will one day come in the flesh-seed of David's lions and set upon the throne of David.  This Davidic seed is the Messieh, the Christ body of God, the anointed body, and his name is Jesus! Yes, Jesus is God occupying the sovereign right of Kingship over Israel.  Jesus is both man and God, both Son and Father, although the nature and glory of the flesh is one glory and (terrestrial); and the glory and nature (celestial) of the Divine Spirit of the Father is another glory and nature.  One person two glories and natures (This was the transfigure revelation of Mark 9:2).  A man of himself has no such transfiguring power to change from one glory and nature to another glory and nature. Jesus, without the nature and glory of the indwelling Godhead would have been a dead body. The very life of Jesus Christ was the Spirit of God the Father in him.  When this Spirit departed from Jesus on Calvary he DIED!  So long as the Father and the fulness of the Godhead dwelt in Jesus, the flesh could not die.  But when the Deity of God departed from the body, the flesh-seed which descended from David to JESUS DIED!  Paul said they had crucified the LORD (Greek Kurios) of Glory (1Cor 2:8). INC claims they just crucified a man. Paul says they crucified GOD!

Attempts by INC to divide Jesus the man from Jesus as the person of the Father and quote text showing the different natures and glories, goes to prove the dual nature of Jesus not disprove it.

This is the doctrine of the Apostles when Paul said God was in Messieh (Christ) (2Cor 5:19), that God was manifest in the flesh (1Tim 3:16), and that the Jews had crucified the LORD of glory (1Cor 2:8).  

Yes, in the person of Jesus the Father was crucified (patripassian--although some claim this means the Father died, this is false. It means only the Father suffered in the crucifixion, the passion leading to the death of the Son).  The indwelling fulness of the Godhead in Christ suffered the complete passion through the flesh. This does not mean the Father or Deity died. This is a false accusation made by those who want to redefine the meaning of Patripassion as we Patripassion teach it.  Patripassion means the flesh of David's lions, the Son of God, in which God the Father dwelt, DIED and the Father experience all the passion through the flesh!  If the Father was in Jesus as Jesus confessed in John 14:10, and as explained to Phillip in John 14:9--"He that seen me hath seen the Father": Then Jesus is uniquely man and God fused into one identity and unity the same as man is body and spirit and fused into one identity and unity.  

Both the Trinitarians and INC will have sufficient reason to denounce and reject these truths and words of Jesus, and place a different interpretation upon them.  Phillip ask to see the Father.  His question was directed toward seeing God.  Jesus responded to this inquiry and told Phillip when he looked at him, he was seeing God in human form. "When you have seen me you have seen the Father." Or: "When you have seen me you have seen God." This verifies that God did keep his oath to David.  He did come in the flesh-seed of his lions being born of the house of David, and he was King over Israel, even if the Jews denied both his Deity and his Lordship as King of Israel. Apostolics will not deny or recant the oath of God or the identity of Jesus. Jesus is God the Father and these two are ONE! In one day, the LORD God would be king over all the earth and this prophecy of Zachariah was fulfilled in Jesus Christ when he was born (Zech 14:9).

Here is an interesting translation found in the Jehovah's Witnesses New World Translation (NWT) of Psalms 132:11:

"Jehovah has sworn to David, Truly he will not draw back from it: “Of the fruitage of your belly I shall set on your throne."

Of course since the JW also deny the Deity of Jesus and make him only a man like INC claims, they will not say this was fulfilled in Jesus.  They will say Jesus is not Jehovah in human form in the seed-flesh of David as God swore unto him.  

Honest translations need only one thing as a test of reliability and that is the safety of readers to believe the text and thereby be led to salvation. A text that claims to be true that a person cannot have faith in to obtain salvation is worthless and of no value.  Even the NWT shows God swore to set on David's throne via the occupation of his flesh-seed that would issue from his lions in a future generation.

Now we understand the dual nature of Jesus Christ.  Now we can understand the text that speaks of Jesus being a man and God being his Father. We can understand the flesh that descended from David was not God, so it must be referred to as the son of man.  We can understand why the Son and the Father are distinguished in Scripture. All this must be to distinguished in the work of the Son from the work of the Father. The office of the Son as Messieh, and the office of the Father as God must be recognized and kept in their own perspective. These must be separated for identity between the mortal and the immortal. Yet Jesus is spoken of as being immortal:

"That thou keep this commandment without spot, unrebukeable, until the appearing of our Lord Jesus Christ: Which in his times he shall shew, who is the blessed and only Potentate, the King of kings, and Lord of lords; who only hath immortality, dwelling in the light which no man can approach unto; whom no man hath seen, not can see: to whom be honor and power everlasting. Amen" (1Tim 6:14-16).

Does Jesus have immortality? Yes!  INC says he is a mortal and not immortal.  Does Jesus ever shew who this immortal King of kings and Lord of lords is? For when this is revealed, at once and at the same moment the ONLY Potentate will be made known.

"These shall make war with the Lamb, and the Lamb shall overcome them: for he is Lord of lords, and King of kings: and they that are with him are called, chosen, and faithful" (Rev 17:14).

Who is this Lord of lords and King of kings?  It is the Lamb! "for he is Lord of lords, and King of kings."

"And he hath on his vesture and on his thigh a name written, KING of KINGS, and LORD of LORDS" (Rev 19:16).

Revelation 19:13 says his name shall be called the WORD OF GOD.  Manalo and the INC say the Word, the Logos, is only the mind of God the Father; here the Word or Logos is a PERSON, the ONLY Potentate! This is Jesus and anyone who denies this, gives more then enough proof they are in error, void of all righteousness, and unqualified to handle and interpret the Scriptures.

Who is this ONLY Potentate who wears this vesture? It is Jesus!

Jesus was both man and God, with the humanity glorified (Spiritfied) at the resurrection, he is both the visible and invisible form of God. No one will ever see God the Father except in the person of Jesus Christ. No one can know the Father except through Jesus:

"All things are delivered unto me of my Father: and no man knoweth the Son, but the Father; neither knoweth any man the Father, save the Son, and he to whomsoever the Son will reveal him" (Mat 11:27).

How did Jesus reveal the Father?  He revealed the Father in him not apart from him (John 14:9-11). It is men trying to reveal the Father apart and separate from Jesus.  They contradict Jesus when they claim they can reveal the Father and do not need Jesus to reveal him in himself. 

Because of the glorified humanity God adopted into his Deity, his last and final theophany, we will know God only in the revelation and face of Jesus Christ throughout all eternity.

"For God, who commanded the light to shine out of darkness, hath shined in our hearts, to give the light of the knowledge of the glory of God in the face of Jesus Christ" (2Cor 4:6).

What is missing in the INC is the knowledge of the glory of God in the face of Jesus Christ.  Felix Manalo was trying to refute the trinity doctrine and found himself refuting the very identity of God in Christ. He never recovered from that ignorance and never was entrusted by God to have this wonderful knowledge, so simple, so sweet, so glorious, and so beautiful.  INC then remains in darkness until this light shines in the hearts of its present day leaders. Deny the trinity? Yes, it is unscriptural.  Deny Jesus is God and the only Potentate and King of kings and Lord of lords?  No, this shows the light God has commanded is not among those who deny the unity of Father and Son, God and Jesus Christ.

Marvelous revelation, O, what a great Light Jesus was when he said he was the LIGHT!  What a revelation when we know Jesus is the LIGHT and in him, as the revelation of the Father, there IS NO SHADOW (James 1:17)!

For in him dwelleth the fulness of the Godhead bodily (Col 2:9). Two natures are here described: 1.) "him" which is Jesus the Son of God, the flesh seed of David; and 2.) Godhead, which is the totality of the Divine Spirit.

Does this agree with other scriptures?  Yes!

Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works (John 14:10).

Jesus is saying at this time that the words he is speaking are not from his flesh but from the Father which dwelleth in him.  THe Father was speaking through the instrumentality and agency of the lips of the Son. The Father here is the one Divine Spirit Being we call God.  Two natures are here described by Jesus.  He, the flesh tabernacle and the Father, the Divine Spirit Being in him. Jesus revealed a mystery INC denies.  There are times when Jesus spoke as the Son of God, the flesh body, and times when the Father in him did the speaking using the facility of the Son of God, the flesh body.  Jesus said here it was the Father speaking through him.

Whoever looked at Jesus would not see just the Son of God (flesh and bones), they would see the image of the invisible God. They would see the Father in his human vail!

"Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature" (Col 1:15). Does the Spirit have flesh and bones, yes, it the person of Jesus.  Does the Spirit have a material body?  Yes, in the person of Jesus.  Does the Divine Spirit have a material body?  Yes, the Divine Spirit has a material body although it is composed of Spirit matter (which we are prohibited from knowing all things about). A Spirit still has a body, a form, a shape, even if the body is not flesh and bones.  What is the testimony of Paul on this matter of bodies?

"There are also celestial bodies, and bodies terrestrial: but the glory of the celestial is one, and the glory of the terrestrial is another" (1Cor 15:40).

For anyone in INC to claim a Spirit does not have a material body with its own celestial glory is to preach falsehood.  The Word of God tells us there are celestial bodies and these have a glory. By glory we understand the idea of form, shape, body, and having a composition of some form.  If there are Spiritual bodies, they must be composed of some material form.  We know this is not impossible, because we believe according to the Scripture that the bodies of the saints at the time of the resurrection will be glorified and made inot a spirit form. This new form, this new glory, this new dimension of flesh and bones glorified will be made like unto the glorious body of the resurrected Jesus.

"Beloved, now are we the sons of God, and it doth not yet appear what we shall be: but we know that, when he shall appear, we shall be like him; for we shall see him as he is" (1John 3:2).

We will be glorified like unto the body Jesus appears in at his coming.  He is coming in a glorified flesh and bone body. After his resurrection Jesus appeared in a flesh and bone body.  He ate with the Apostles after his resurrection--(Luke 24:13-43). Was Jesus spirit  only after his resurrection?  INC quote Luke 24:39--"a spirit hath not flesh and bones" and apply the word "spirit" here to God when the reference is to a human ghost, which was the cause of the disciples being terrified and afrightened (24:37). Jesus could take on human form of flesh and bones and disappear out of their midst in spirit form.

Jesus appeared in a body form of flesh and bones after his resurrection. This is proof there are material spirit bodies in the resurrection and these forms are in the likeness of God himself.  Man cannot have in his spiritual entity what God does not have. Man was made in the image and likeness of God. God can then have a material body, a form and shape in the figure of man with flesh and bones, and yet a spiritual body at any time he wishes.  If would be wild to confess that angels have some form of material spirit bodies and God who is with them does not.  Does God have a spiritual flesh and bones body as his material body in heaven?  Yes! We do not know how, only that it must be so for man to possess this likeness in human form.  It is the human form that is like God, not God made in human form by man.  Only in the person of Jesus did the Divine Spirit dwell in all fulness bodily on earth and take on human form.  Only in Jesus upon earth did God manifest his Deity in a robe of flesh.

"For without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory" (1Tim 3:16).

While INC will deny Jesus was both man and God, this text cleary says God was manifest in the flesh.  What and who's flesh is indicated?  It is Jesus who is indicated.  When did God preach unto the Gentiles?  Through the lips of Jesus! When was God received up into glory? In the glorified body of Jesus! If God was manifest in the flesh of Jesus, then Jesus was both man and God, two natures--human and Divine!  Both natures were united in one person. Flesh and Spirit were united in oneness the same as you and I have a body and a spirit and are united in oneness.  If the Spirit of God was taken from Jesus, true, he would have been only a man.  But this is not the case and no one can prove God was not in Christ. Manalo and the INC have never proved God was not in Christ in the fulness of the Godhead bodily.

God fashioned the body of Adam of earthly material things but his form and fashion, his figure and body form, were made after the image and likeness of God's spiritual material body. The spiritual body of God has the same characteristics and form the flesh body of Adam had.  

This is the real Jesus the Apostles preached.  Those who do not preach that the Father dwelt in Jesus are preaching a different Jesus.

How much of the Father dwelt in Jesus?  Colossians 2:9 says the fulness of the Godhead. Since there is only one God then all of the Father dwelt in Jesus.

Are these the only scriptures that teach Jesus was both man and God?  No!

"To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself" (1Cor 5:19a).
Again, there were two natures in Jesus, human and Divine.  This is the real Jesus.

Now the question is, was Jesus just a man or is also God?  The answer as shown in the text above shows he is also God.  The problem for INC is they make Jesus only a man, only a flesh body, and never confess God tabernacled (dwelt) in the flesh as the Father's own flesh body as he swore unto David.

Is the Father the only true God and Jesus was not God, which was the premise of the INC statements?  No, the Father is God and his choice to be manifest as a theophany in the Son made the Son also the person of God.

Jesus is God, the very image of his person.  This is the true Gospel.  This is the Divine message. This is the teaching of the Apostles and all other are cursed.

"In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine into them" (2Cor 4:4).

If anyone cannot see that Jesus is the image of God, then the god of this world has blinded them and they cannot believe because they have been deceived.

What does the word "image" here mean in the Greek?
"eikon Strongs 1504, from Greek 1503 eiko, a copy, to resemble, to be like; eikon--a likeness, representation, resemblance, profile, image.

If a person cannot see Jesus is God, it is because God has denied them the revelation of himself.

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