by Pastor G. Reckart
Jesus Messieh Fellowship
7911 N. 40th Street
Tampa, Florida 33604
(All Scripture will be from the King James Version (KJV) unless noted)
True, there is only one God (Deut 6:4).
True, Jesus is the Son of God (Luke 1:35).
At this point there is a drastic diversion from New Testament doctrine and
INC doctrine. The Scriptures teach Jesus is both God and man, Father
and Son, and Lord and Christ. Hence, there is a Spiritual unity between
God-Father-Lord and Man-Son-Christ. There is at the same time
a difference between the humanity and the Deity of Christ. We admit
this and confess it. We confess that Jesus Christ has come in the
flesh (1John 4:3). We refuse to confess the trinitarian view of this
incarnation and also that of INC that Jesus Christ coming in flesh means
he was a man only.
The argument of INC against Jesus and the Father being one divine person,
is basically the same argument the Trinitarians use to claim the Father and
Jesus are separate persons in the trinity. INC however strips from Jesus
any and all connection to Deity and makes him separate from the Father and
a man only. This being the case, how was Jesus saved? What was
the manner of his salvation? Where is the scripture that shows Jesus
was saved? If Jesus was only a man, he would need salvation for himself.
So far I have not read where INC deals with the salvation of Jesus.
Being a man only as they claim, he would need to be saved before he could
save others. At what point in his life was he a sinner and at what point
was he saved. If he was never a sinner, then INC needs to explain how
Jesus was man and born without the judgment of Adam on him, without inherited
sin as some claim a men are born with. Scripture on this might give us a
better understanding of how INC views Jesus in the totality of his sinful
humanity. How was he preserved from sin in his humanity if he was sinless?
Jesus was more than a man. He was not a man like all of us as Felix Manalo
claimed. There was inherent heavenly Lordship in Jesus that other men are
not born with. Jesus was Lord and Messieh (God and Christ).
"For unto you is born this day in the city of David a Saviour, which is Messieh
(Christ) the Lord" (Luke 2:11). Exactly what Lordship did Jesus posses when
he was born?
Messieh (Hebrew), Christ (Greek), what are the meaning of these two titles?
The first actual use of the title Messieh is found in Daniel 9:25--"Unto
the Messieh the Prince". A better rendering would be--"Unto the Anointed
Prince." Who and what was the Messianic hope in this text. Exactly
how did the Prophet Daniel and other Prophets view this future coming Anointed
The answer is found in a prophecy given to David in Psalms 132:11:
"The LORD hath sworn in truth to David; he will not turn from it; of the
fruit of thy body will I set upon thy throne."
"The Lord swore in truth to David, and He will not annul it, saying, Of the
fruit of your body will I set a king upon your throne" (Septuagint
Please note the words "a king" is in italics and is not in the actual
Greek of the present Septuagint. There are many who rely on wording
in the present Septuagint as if this text is free of interpolations, errors,
and bias by translators. The Septuagint we have today is not the same
one Jesus and the Apostles quote from. I offer the words of precaution by
W. D. Mounce found in the Preface of his W.D. Mounce's Basics of Biblical
". . . just because it is written does not make it true. A warning
to the wise"
What is Dr. Mounce saying? He is saying there are many instances in
the present Septuagint Greek version of the Old Testament where the text
is polluted and not accurate. It is not in agreement with the Massoretic
text. He is offering a caution not to build a doctrine based upon the wording
in the Septuagint. In fact, the most solid basis of any Biblical argument
is to examine the most extant Greek or Massoretic text we have available
and determine the exact intent and thus the wording of the original text.
I have chosen to follow the Greek TR which the INC accepts as the most
authoritative. For this reason I have chosen not to accept the perversion
of Psalms 132:11 as found in the Septuagint because the interpolated words
"a king" totally perverts both the wording and intent of the original text.
In the original text God swore to David that HE would set on David's
throne. That is far different then saying God would set a king
upon David's throne. In the first God comes to the earth occupying
the actual flesh-seed of David (of the fruit of thy body), and sets on the
throne of David. In the perverted text, God does not come and occupy
the flesh-seed of David and set on the throne of David, but instead the text
is worded so God swears to David just to set a king on his throne. In
the first there is the Messianic hope of God coming to visit mankind in human
form, and in the latter God does not come at all, ONLY A MAN COMES OF DAVID'S
This text is a dilemma for both trinitarians and INC. The Trinitarians
would need to confess Jesus was the visible image of the invisible indwelling
Father, making him both the Father and the Son (fruit of David's loins);
and for the INC they would need to confess that Jesus was GOD manifest in
the flesh (fruit of David's lions). On both accounts there would be one person
and one God, with God being the living Spirit of Jesus. Trinitarians
will not confess Jesus and the Father are the same person and INC will not
confess that Jesus is God! But the Scriptures cannot be broken, God
swore to David he would come in the flesh-seed of his lions and set on his
throne. When would God come and complete his oath? How would
Jesus be both the LORD from glory, and also the Lord-King of David's seed
and heir to the throne of Israel? Neither the trinitarians on INC will
correctly answer this. They will both try to destroy even the idea
it is true. That is why the Trinitarians and INC search for alternative
renderings until they find a text that destroys the oath God made to David.
The present Septuagint and subsequent renderings by Trinitarians will
always pervert the text by now adding "a king" to Psalms 132:11 so as to
make Jesus less then he was, either partial deity (a person in the triune
Godhead), or having no deity at all (not in the Godhead).
The Old Testament portion of the King James Version of the Bible was translated
from the Massoretic Text and NOT FROM THE GREEK SEPTUAGINT. The KJV has the
most accurate and most perfect text of all Bibles. It is always the
practice of those who set up false religions to find translations that have
the best wording that fits their false teachings. Joseph Smith could
not find one so he concocted his own bible (The Book of Mormon) to substantiate
his claims. Outside of himself there are no authortative witnesses to his
heresies or that he was the Prophet he claimed. Thus we say he was
self-ordained and self-exalted. The same holds true for Felix Manalo,
there was no authortative outside witness to his prophetship or his
claims of being a messias, or his claims of restoring the primitive Church.
So he turned to the scriptures to find different text that he might manipulate
to bear witness to his ministry and his own church. Manalo and his
followers will use any perverted text or translation to prove the scriptural
basis of his authority, thus calling the Massoretic text of the devil
Was Jesus God manifest in the flesh, something Manalo and INC deny?
What does the Massoretic text found in Psalms 132:11 contain: 1.) will
I set upon thy throne; or 2.) will I set a
king on thy throne?
"HaShem swore unto David in truth; He will not turn back from it: 'Of the
fruit of thy body will I set upon thy throne" (The Holy Scriptures
According To The Massoretic Text, Copyright 1917, The Jewish Publication
Society of America).
Of course INC will take the self-serving perversion of the Septuagint or
some other perverted text and quote these because it suits their purpose
to deny Jesus was God. When they deny the Massorectic text they must claim
it is false and of the devil. This is the evidence that proves the INC
is a perverted religion, is not of God, because it does not seek the Truth
but a perversion to support their own false doctrines.
The fact is, the text says God swore to David and he will not turn from it,
he will one day come in the flesh-seed of David's lions and set upon the
throne of David. This Davidic seed is the Messieh, the Christ body
of God, the anointed body, and his name is Jesus! Yes, Jesus is God occupying
the sovereign right of Kingship over Israel. Jesus is both man and
God, both Son and Father, although the nature and glory of the flesh is one
glory and (terrestrial); and the glory and nature (celestial) of the Divine
Spirit of the Father is another glory and nature. One person two glories
and natures (This was the transfigure revelation of Mark 9:2). A man
of himself has no such transfiguring power to change from one glory and nature
to another glory and nature. Jesus, without the nature and glory of the
indwelling Godhead would have been a dead body. The very life of Jesus Christ
was the Spirit of God the Father in him. When this Spirit departed
from Jesus on Calvary he DIED! So long as the Father and the fulness
of the Godhead dwelt in Jesus, the flesh could not die. But when the
Deity of God departed from the body, the flesh-seed which descended from
David to JESUS DIED! Paul said they had crucified the LORD (Greek Kurios)
of Glory (1Cor 2:8). INC claims they just crucified a man. Paul says
they crucified GOD!
Attempts by INC to divide Jesus the man from Jesus as the person of the Father
and quote text showing the different natures and glories, goes to prove the
dual nature of Jesus not disprove it.
This is the doctrine of the Apostles when Paul said God was in Messieh (Christ)
(2Cor 5:19), that God was manifest in the flesh (1Tim 3:16), and that the
Jews had crucified the LORD of glory (1Cor 2:8).
Yes, in the person of Jesus the Father was crucified (patripassian--although
some claim this means the Father died, this is false. It means only the Father
suffered in the crucifixion, the passion leading to the death of the Son).
The indwelling fulness of the Godhead in Christ suffered the complete
passion through the flesh. This does not mean the Father or Deity died. This
is a false accusation made by those who want to redefine the meaning of
Patripassion as we Patripassion teach it. Patripassion means the flesh
of David's lions, the Son of God, in which God the Father dwelt, DIED and
the Father experience all the passion through the flesh! If the Father
was in Jesus as Jesus confessed in John 14:10, and as explained to Phillip
in John 14:9--"He that seen me hath seen the Father": Then
Jesus is uniquely man and God fused into one identity
and unity the same as man is body and spirit and fused into one identity
Both the Trinitarians and INC will have sufficient reason to denounce and
reject these truths and words of Jesus, and place a different interpretation
upon them. Phillip ask to see the Father. His question was directed
toward seeing God. Jesus responded to this inquiry and told Phillip
when he looked at him, he was seeing God in human form. "When you have seen
me you have seen the Father." Or: "When you have seen me you have seen God."
This verifies that God did keep his oath to David. He did come in the
flesh-seed of his lions being born of the house of David, and he was King
over Israel, even if the Jews denied both his Deity and his Lordship as King
of Israel. Apostolics will not deny or recant the oath of God or the identity
of Jesus. Jesus is God the Father and these two are ONE! In one day, the
LORD God would be king over all the earth and this prophecy of Zachariah
was fulfilled in Jesus Christ when he was born (Zech 14:9).
Here is an interesting translation found in the Jehovah's Witnesses
New World Translation (NWT) of Psalms 132:11:
"Jehovah has sworn to David, Truly he will not draw back from it: Of
the fruitage of your belly I shall set on your throne."
Of course since the JW also deny the Deity of Jesus and make him only a man
like INC claims, they will not say this was fulfilled in Jesus. They
will say Jesus is not Jehovah in human form in the seed-flesh of David as
God swore unto him.
Honest translations need only one thing as a test of reliability and that
is the safety of readers to believe the text and thereby be led to
salvation. A text that claims to be true that a person cannot have faith
in to obtain salvation is worthless and of no value. Even the
NWT shows God swore to set on David's throne via the occupation of his flesh-seed
that would issue from his lions in a future generation.
Now we understand the dual nature of Jesus Christ. Now we can
understand the text that speaks of Jesus being a man and God being his Father.
We can understand the flesh that descended from David was not God, so it
must be referred to as the son of man. We can understand why the Son
and the Father are distinguished in Scripture. All this must be to distinguished
in the work of the Son from the work of the Father. The office of the Son
as Messieh, and the office of the Father as God must be recognized and
kept in their own perspective. These must be separated for identity between
the mortal and the immortal. Yet Jesus is spoken of as being immortal:
"That thou keep this commandment without spot, unrebukeable, until the appearing
of our Lord Jesus Christ: Which in his times he shall shew, who is the
blessed and only Potentate, the King of kings, and Lord
of lords; who only hath immortality, dwelling in the light which
no man can approach unto; whom no man hath seen, not can see: to whom be
honor and power everlasting. Amen" (1Tim 6:14-16).
Does Jesus have immortality? Yes! INC says he is a mortal and not immortal.
Does Jesus ever shew who this immortal King of kings and Lord of lords
is? For when this is revealed, at once and at the same moment the ONLY Potentate
will be made known.
"These shall make war with the Lamb, and the Lamb shall overcome them: for
he is Lord of lords, and King of kings: and they that are with him are called,
chosen, and faithful" (Rev 17:14).
Who is this Lord of lords and King of kings? It is the Lamb! "for
he is Lord of lords, and King of kings."
"And he hath on his vesture and on his thigh a name written, KING of KINGS,
and LORD of LORDS" (Rev 19:16).
Revelation 19:13 says his name shall be called the WORD OF GOD.
Manalo and the INC say the Word, the Logos, is only the mind of God
the Father; here the Word or Logos is a PERSON, the ONLY Potentate!
This is Jesus and anyone who denies this, gives more then enough proof they
are in error, void of all righteousness, and unqualified to handle and interpret
Who is this ONLY Potentate who wears this vesture? It is Jesus!
Jesus was both man and God, with the humanity glorified (Spiritfied) at the
resurrection, he is both the visible and invisible form of God. No one will
ever see God the Father except in the person of Jesus Christ. No one can
know the Father except through Jesus:
"All things are delivered unto me of my Father: and no man knoweth the Son,
but the Father; neither knoweth any man the Father, save the Son, and he
to whomsoever the Son will reveal him" (Mat 11:27).
How did Jesus reveal the Father? He revealed the Father in him not
apart from him (John 14:9-11). It is men trying to reveal the Father apart
and separate from Jesus. They contradict Jesus when they claim they
can reveal the Father and do not need Jesus to reveal him in himself.
Because of the glorified humanity God adopted into his Deity, his last and
final theophany, we will know God only in the revelation and face of Jesus
Christ throughout all eternity.
"For God, who commanded the light to shine out of darkness, hath shined
in our hearts, to give the light of the knowledge of the glory of God in
the face of Jesus Christ" (2Cor 4:6).
What is missing in the INC is the knowledge of the glory of God in the face
of Jesus Christ. Felix Manalo was trying to refute the trinity doctrine
and found himself refuting the very identity of God in Christ. He never recovered
from that ignorance and never was entrusted by God to have this wonderful
knowledge, so simple, so sweet, so glorious, and so beautiful. INC
then remains in darkness until this light shines in the hearts of its present
day leaders. Deny the trinity? Yes, it is unscriptural. Deny Jesus
is God and the only Potentate and King of kings and Lord of lords? No,
this shows the light God has commanded is not among those who deny the unity
of Father and Son, God and Jesus Christ.
Marvelous revelation, O, what a great Light Jesus was when he said he was
the LIGHT! What a revelation when we know Jesus is the LIGHT and in
him, as the revelation of the Father, there IS NO SHADOW (James 1:17)!
For in him dwelleth the fulness of the Godhead bodily (Col 2:9). Two natures
are here described: 1.) "him" which is Jesus the Son of God, the flesh seed
of David; and 2.) Godhead, which is the totality of the Divine Spirit.
Does this agree with other scriptures? Yes!
Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? the words
that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth
in me, he doeth the works (John 14:10).
Jesus is saying at this time that the words he is speaking are not from his
flesh but from the Father which dwelleth in him. THe Father was speaking
through the instrumentality and agency of the lips of the Son. The Father
here is the one Divine Spirit Being we call God. Two natures are here
described by Jesus. He, the flesh tabernacle and the Father, the Divine
Spirit Being in him. Jesus revealed a mystery INC denies. There are
times when Jesus spoke as the Son of God, the flesh body, and times when
the Father in him did the speaking using the facility of the Son of God,
the flesh body. Jesus said here it was the Father speaking through
Whoever looked at Jesus would not see just the Son of God (flesh and bones),
they would see the image of the invisible God. They would see the Father
in his human vail!
"Who is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of every creature"
(Col 1:15). Does the Spirit have flesh and bones, yes, it the person of Jesus.
Does the Spirit have a material body? Yes, in the person of Jesus.
Does the Divine Spirit have a material body? Yes, the Divine
Spirit has a material body although it is composed of Spirit matter (which
we are prohibited from knowing all things about). A Spirit still has a body,
a form, a shape, even if the body is not flesh and bones. What is the
testimony of Paul on this matter of bodies?
"There are also celestial bodies, and bodies terrestrial: but the glory of
the celestial is one, and the glory of the terrestrial is another" (1Cor
For anyone in INC to claim a Spirit does not have a material body with its
own celestial glory is to preach falsehood. The Word of God tells us
there are celestial bodies and these have a glory. By glory we understand
the idea of form, shape, body, and having a composition of some form. If
there are Spiritual bodies, they must be composed of some material form.
We know this is not impossible, because we believe according to the
Scripture that the bodies of the saints at the time of the resurrection will
be glorified and made inot a spirit form. This new form, this new glory,
this new dimension of flesh and bones glorified will be made like unto the
glorious body of the resurrected Jesus.
"Beloved, now are we the sons of God, and it doth not yet appear what we
shall be: but we know that, when he shall appear, we shall be like him; for
we shall see him as he is" (1John 3:2).
We will be glorified like unto the body Jesus appears in at his coming. He
is coming in a glorified flesh and bone body. After his resurrection
Jesus appeared in a flesh and bone body. He ate with the Apostles after
his resurrection--(Luke 24:13-43). Was Jesus spirit only after his
resurrection? INC quote Luke 24:39--"a spirit hath not flesh and bones"
and apply the word "spirit" here to God when the reference is to a human
ghost, which was the cause of the disciples being terrified and afrightened
(24:37). Jesus could take on human form of flesh and bones and disappear
out of their midst in spirit form.
Jesus appeared in a body form of flesh and bones after his resurrection.
This is proof there are material spirit bodies in the resurrection and these
forms are in the likeness of God himself. Man cannot have in his spiritual
entity what God does not have. Man was made in the image and likeness of
God. God can then have a material body, a form and shape in the figure of
man with flesh and bones, and yet a spiritual body at any time he wishes.
If would be wild to confess that angels have some form of material
spirit bodies and God who is with them does not. Does God have a spiritual
flesh and bones body as his material body in heaven? Yes! We do not
know how, only that it must be so for man to possess this likeness in human
form. It is the human form that is like God, not God made in human
form by man. Only in the person of Jesus did the Divine Spirit
dwell in all fulness bodily on earth and take on human form. Only in
Jesus upon earth did God manifest his Deity in a robe of flesh.
"For without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest
in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the
Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory" (1Tim 3:16).
While INC will deny Jesus was both man and God, this text cleary says God
was manifest in the flesh. What and who's flesh is indicated? It
is Jesus who is indicated. When did God preach unto the Gentiles?
Through the lips of Jesus! When was God received up into glory?
In the glorified body of Jesus! If God was manifest in the flesh of Jesus,
then Jesus was both man and God, two natures--human and Divine! Both
natures were united in one person. Flesh and Spirit were united in oneness
the same as you and I have a body and a spirit and are united in
oneness. If the Spirit of God was taken from Jesus, true, he would
have been only a man. But this is not the case and no one can prove
God was not in Christ. Manalo and the INC have never proved God was not in
Christ in the fulness of the Godhead bodily.
God fashioned the body of Adam of earthly material things but his form and
fashion, his figure and body form, were made after the image and likeness
of God's spiritual material body. The spiritual body of God has the same
characteristics and form the flesh body of Adam had.
This is the real Jesus the Apostles preached. Those who do not preach
that the Father dwelt in Jesus are preaching a different Jesus.
How much of the Father dwelt in Jesus? Colossians 2:9 says the fulness
of the Godhead. Since there is only one God then all of the Father dwelt
Are these the only scriptures that teach Jesus was both man and God? No!
"To wit, that God was in Christ, reconciling the world unto himself" (1Cor
Again, there were two natures in Jesus, human and Divine. This is the
Now the question is, was Jesus just a man or is also God? The answer
as shown in the text above shows he is also God. The problem for INC
is they make Jesus only a man, only a flesh body, and never confess God
tabernacled (dwelt) in the flesh as the Father's own flesh body as he swore
Is the Father the only true God and Jesus was not God, which was the premise
of the INC statements? No, the Father is God and his choice to be manifest
as a theophany in the Son made the Son also the person of God.
Jesus is God, the very image of his person. This is the true Gospel.
This is the Divine message. This is the teaching of the Apostles and
all other are cursed.
"In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe
not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of
God, should shine into them" (2Cor 4:4).
If anyone cannot see that Jesus is the image of God, then the god of this
world has blinded them and they cannot believe because they have been deceived.
What does the word "image" here mean in the Greek?
"eikon Strongs 1504, from Greek 1503 eiko, a copy, to resemble, to be like;
eikon--a likeness, representation, resemblance, profile, image.
If a person cannot see Jesus is God, it is because God has denied them the
revelation of himself.
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