The Virgin Birth
By Cohen G. Reckart, Pastor
Copyright all Rights Reserved
There have been attacks against the virgin birth of Jesus from the times of the Apostles. These attacks have come from Pharisee Talmudic Jews and they have not ceased in over 1967 years. What is the purpose of the attack? It is to destroy faith in Jesus as the Messiah by trying to prove that his mother was a Jewish whore. The first step in this attack is to claim that the prophecy of Isaiah 7:14 does not refer to the birth of Jesus and the Hebrew word "virgin" in the King James Version is false. The Pharisee Talmudist have continued unrelentlessly to change the word "virgin" to "young woman." Once they can make this into "young woman" and not a "virgin" they come forth with the accusations that Mary was a Jewish prostitute and the daddy of Jesus was a Roman soldier. When it serves their purpose, Pharisee Talmudist will degrade Jewishness right into the sewer.
Not only do they pervert the Isaiah text to do this, they pervert the ancient languages to do it. Anyone who has read excerpts of the Babylonian Talmud can see how they change words and make new blasphemous words to denigrate Jesus, his mother, the Apostles, the New Testament Church, and the teachings of Jesus. Should we expect anything less than hate, bigotry, and continued plots to rid the earth of Jesus and his Messianic Judaism? Mark this well and let there be no mistake: the Pharisee Talmudist Jews have not been successful in this hate. And mark also this: even the gates of hell will not prevail against it (Matthew 16:18). Yes, some Gentiles like Judas, may apostate and join these antichrist and take up the wail of grief that the worship of Jesus continues, ...but so WHAT! And although the coming Jewish antichrist who will rule from Jerusalem begins to slaughter Christians, the fact remains forever as God being the witness: Jesus was born of a virgin!
The virgin birth of the Messiah will continue to be attacked and denied. But true believers in Jesus will not be turned from this prophetic fact regardless if all the Pharisee Talmudic Jews in the world go into wood-working to make crosses for us all.
Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin [Strong's #5959--alma] shall conceive, and bear a son, And call his name Immanuel.
The Hebrew word "alma" is used here because it denotes a virgin of a particular kind, an unmarried one!
Pharisee Talmudist claim that "alma" means "young woman" and that if Isaiah meant this to be understood as "virgin" he would have used the Hebrew word "betulah" (Strong's #1330).
Why would Isaiah use the word "alma" and not "betulah" if "alma" did not signify the maid was a virgin?
It is a fact that the Hebrew word "alma" identifies a young unmarried maid who was a virgin. A young unmarried maid may not be a virgin but saying "alma" designates her as being a virgin. There is not a single text where "alma" is used to designate a non-virgin maid. Let the antichrist produce the text. If they cannot produce the text, then why do they make the argument to change this one text to mean something no other text with "alma" in it means?
Take a look at Genesis 24:43:--Behold, I stand by the well of water; and it shall come to pass, that when a virgin cometh forth to draw water, and I say unto her, Give me, I pray thee, a little water of thy pitcher to drink."
The word "virgin" here is "alma." Would the antichrist want Isaac to have been married to a slut, a whore, a prostitute, as they try to force upon Jesus and his mother by reinterpretation of "alma?" Look at Genesis 24:16 where Rebekah is called a virgin and the Hebrew word "betulah" is used. Is she a virgin in verse 16 but in verse 43 she is now a non-virgin, a slut, a whore, a prostitute? Obviously not! When these hatemongering Talmudist begin attacking Jesus and his queen mother, look at a mess they make of the Bible. No wonder Jesus said he would take the Kingdom from them and give it to others. No wonder he called the Pharisee Talmudist of the devil and their doctrines leaven!
In the Songs of Solomon 1:3 and 6:8 "alma" means virgins. Dr. Cyrus Gordon who is a Talmudic Jew is a little more honest than his colleagues. He does not believe in Jesus or the virgin birth but he says that "alma" translated as "virgin" in the KJV is correct (Almah in Isaiah 7:14; Gordon, Cyrus H.; JBR 21:106). The Hebrew Publishing Company Translation of 1916 translates "alma" as "virgin" in Gen. 24:43 and in Song 1:3; 6:8.
Why would the Pharisee Talmudist continue to boast that Isaiah 7:14 refers not to a virgin birth but a birth by a young non-virgin woman? At least one of their modern Bibles is right even if they reject what Isaiah wrote in the original old Bible.
Below is the Isaiah 7:14 text from the Aramaic Peshitta MSS:
Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin [B'TULTA] shall conceive, and bear a son, And call his name Immanuel.
Obviously this ancient text contains the word for "virgin" that the antichrist says must be in the text for it to mean this. Some might ask how then the text that came to us in the KJV has "alma" and not "betulah?" Frankly, we do not know. It is possible that both words in this case meant the same thing and so there was no reason to have it a certain way. Especially, if there was a text about Rebekah that she was both "betulah" and "alma" they would see no problem in using either words.
The Aramaic word B'TULTA means "virgin" and not "a young non-virgin maid".
What does the Greek say about this word "virgin?" The Septuagint records it this way:
Therefore the Lord himself shall give you a sign; Behold, a virgin "Strong's #3933--parthenos" shall conceive, and bear a son, And call his name Immanuel.
The Greek "parthenos" means a "virgin." It does not mean a young married woman, a non-virgin maid, or an immoral female!
The birth of Jesus is mention twice in a particular way, first in Galatians 4:4 where it is said that Christ was made of a woman, and made under the law. The word "woman" here is the Greek "gune" and means a wife, a female, etc. This in no way can be taken to mean Mary was not a virgin because she was a wife. For we read in the sacred record that Joseph took her as his wife but knew her not until Jesus was born. We will take the words of the Apostles before we will take the words of lying Pharisee Talmudist Jews. We will understand the words they used and what they meant by them, as being in agreement with previous New Testament text. Nothing said by the concision will turn us from this. Let them deceive the gullible and those who hate Christ for other reasons. But the very elect will not be deceived.
The next text is found in Revelation 12:4 where the woman brings forth a manchild. Here again the word "woman" is "gune" as above. But how is the woman pictured, as a whore or as a dignified virgin? She is crowned and around her glows the sun and the moon under her feet. She is not seen with a husband because the born of her did not have an earthly father. She is pictured as the Queen of Israel of the tribe of Judah and the only one to bring forth the seed of David.
Some say that Paul never mentioned the virgin birth. That is false! He certainly did not mention Mary as a non-virgin maid.
Now the Pharisee Talmudic Jews what to change the Isaiah 7:14 text so they can prove that Jesus was a "manzer," a bastard. One rabbi said that "the bastard blood of Jesus could not save a dog let alone himself or others." Such inflammatory speech urges me to write with rebuke upon these whose ancestors crucified Jesus to the Cross.
I am not ashamed to write boldly against those who think they do God a service by continuing to spread their hate and bigotry against Jesus. If it were not for this continued hate my writing would have a different flavor.
Nothing in this study on on this site is against those Jews who do not share the hatred of the Pharisee Talmudist.
Cohen G. Reckart